FalconU — Medical Assisting Session 1

Syllabus MA Program — Full Class Schedule ▶ Expand

Date	Session	Topics	HW / Test
Mar 20 Session 1	Introduction to Healthcare	Foundation of Medical Terminology (pp.1425–1428) · Study Tables A-1, A-2, A-4 · Glossary of Word Parts (pp.1429–1436) · Medical Abbreviations (p.1437) · Introduction to Healthcare Ch.1–7 (pp.3–166) · HIPAA Ch.3 (pp.69–70) · Office Safety Ch.6	HW Test Ch.6
Mar 27 Session 2	Administrative MA & Infection Control	Administrative Medical Assisting Ch.8–17 (pp.170–449) · Office Management · Infection Control Ch.31 · Study Tables A-1, A-2, A-4 (repeat)	HW Test Ch.31
Apr 3 Session 3	Body Systems I	Body Structure & Function Ch.18 (p.460) · Integumentary System Ch.19 · Table 19-1 (p.469) · Skeletal System Ch.20 · Tables 20-1, 20-4 (pp.491–494)	—
Apr 10 Session 4	Body Systems II	Muscular System Ch.21 · Table 21-1 (p.509) · Respiratory System Ch.26 · Table 26-1 (p.609) · Pulmonary Functions Ch.48	—
Apr 17 Session 5	Vital Signs	Vital Signs Ch.32 (pp.735–756) · Anthropometric Measurements (pp.735–737) · Temperature (pp.762–772)	HW Test Ch.32
Apr 24 Session 6	Pharmacology & Medications	Pharmacology Ch.51 · Administering Medication Ch.52 · Injections — IM & SC	HW Test Ch.52
May 1 Session 7	Physical Exam & Medical Specialties	Assisting with Physical Examination Ch.33 · Positions demonstration · Assisting with Medical Specialties Ch.34	HW Test Ch.33 + Ch.34
May 8 & 15 Session 8–9	Cardiovascular & Vital Signs	Cardiovascular System Ch.24 · Pulse (pp.749–754) · Blood Pressure (pp.756–766) · Oxygen Saturation (pp.766–768)	—
May 22 Session 10	Phlebotomy & Hematology	Phlebotomy & Blood Collection Ch.42 · Basic Hematology & Chemistry Ch.43	—
May 29 & Jun 5 Session 11–12	Phlebotomy Performance	Phlebotomy performance practice	—
Jun 12 & 19 Session 13–14	Electrocardiography (EKG)	Electrocardiography Ch.47	—
Jun 26 Session 15	Nervous System & Special Senses	Nervous System Ch.22 · Special Senses Ch.23 · Eye, Ear, Nose & Throat Ch.36	—
Jul 3 — No Class · Independence Day Holiday
Jul 10 Session 16	Microbiology & Body Systems III	Microbiology Ch.45 · Digestive System Ch.27 · Immune System Ch.25 · Endocrine System Ch.29	—
Jul 17 Session 17	Urinary System & Clinical Lab	Urinary System Ch.28 · Clinical Laboratory Ch.41 · Urinalysis Ch.44	—
Jul 24 Session 18	Reproductive System	Reproductive System Ch.30 · Assisting with Reproductive Specialties Ch.35	—
Jul 31 Session 19	Surgery, Emergencies & Pediatrics	Office-Based Surgery Ch.39 · Medical Emergencies Ch.40 · Pediatrics Ch.37	—
Aug 3 & 7 Session 20	Geriatrics, PT & Review	Geriatrics Ch.38 · Physical Therapy Ch.49 · Nutrition Ch.54 · Introduction to Healthcare Ch.1–7 (repeat) · Administrative MA Ch.8–17 (repeat)	—
Aug 10–13 Session --	NHA Certification Review	Review all material — National Certification test preparation	—
Aug 14 Session --	NHA National Certification Exam	Exam Day — Friday, August 14, 2026	EXAM DAY

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Question 1 of 86

Section 1 — True / False

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Section 1 — True / False (22 points)

T/F 1

The federal government now requires that all clinical laboratories that test human specimens must be controlled.

True False

T/F 2

Customer service consists of gathering and evaluating information about the services provided (as well as the results achieved) and comparing this information with an accepted standard.

True False

T/F 3

Whenever any accident, injury, or unusual occurrence takes place, a written incident report must be completed.

True False

T/F 4

Economics applies scientific information and data regarding human body mechanics to the design of objects and overall environments for human use.

True False

T/F 5

Housekeeping personnel should empty biohazardous waste.

True False

T/F 6

OSHA standards must be adhered to by every employee who has the possibility of occupational exposure to potentially infectious materials.

True False

T/F 7

Safety is the responsibility of every member of the staff.

True False

T/F 8

The Occupational Safety and Hazard Administration (OSHA) is a government agency responsible for the safety of all employees of companies operating throughout the world.

True False

T/F 9

A safety data sheet (SDS) offers basic information needed to ensure the safety and health of individuals exposed to a potentially hazardous product.

True False

T/F 10

Each office should have an Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) compliance officer who is trained and aware of all the required controls for the use and storage of hazardous materials.

True False

T/F 11

Many medical offices have adopted the acronym RACE to help employees remember what they should do in the event of a fire.

True False

T/F 12

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires a record for each employee to be kept on file for three years after the termination of employment.

True False

T/F 13

The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) requires that employers disclose the existence of toxic and hazardous substances in the workplace.

True False

T/F 14

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) eliminated the ergonomics section of the regulations for medical facilities, but that does not mean they are not important to the well-being and productivity of employees.

True False

T/F 15

Eyewash stations should be checked annually to ensure that they are working properly.

True False

T/F 16

During a fire emergency, it is acceptable for a medical assistant to run inside the medical office to assist a patient to safety.

True False

T/F 17

A medical assistant should never place food in a refrigerator containing laboratory specimens or refrigerated drugs.

True False

T/F 18

A medical assistant who is busy can wait until a more convenient time to clean up a spill.

True False

T/F 19

A medical office should notify the local police and the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) if controlled substances have been stolen from the office.

True False

T/F 20

A planned fire drill should occur at least every two years.

True False

T/F 21

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration's (OSHA) standards mandate that each at-risk employee must be offered the hepatitis B (HBV) vaccine series within the first 30 days of employment and at the expense of the employer.

True False

T/F 22

Evacuation plan guidelines should include a designation of what, if any, employees will remain after the evacuation alarm to shut down critical operations or perform other duties before evacuating.

True False

Section 2 — Multiple Choice (64 points)

MC 1

Which of the following is not a general safety measure?

A Use handrails when using stairways. B File cabinets should be mounted against the walls to avoid accidental tipping when a heavy top drawer is open. C Run, never walk, in a medical office. If an emergency situation occurs, move as quickly as possible. D Open doors carefully to avoid injuring someone on the other side.

MC 2

Which of the following is NOT a guideline in handling a fire in a medical office?

A Rescue employees and patients from the fire area. B Alert by calling 911 immediately. C Confine the fire by closing doors and windows. D Use the elevator and never the stairs to allow for a quicker exit.

MC 3

A fire safety plan like RACE saves lives. Which of the following is not one of the components of RACE?

A Rescue B Alert C Confine D Exit

MC 4

Which of the following is not one of the four major types of medical waste?

A Solid B Liquid C Chemical D Radioactive

MC 5

An employee who refuses the hepatitis B vaccine ________.

A must sign a waiver B cannot work with patients C must have a note from the doctor D cannot work as an administrative employee

MC 6

Which of the following is not a personal protective equipment (PPE) recommendation issued by the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?

A Gloves B Respirator C Mask D Eye/face shield

MC 7

Which is not a guideline for using personal protection equipment (PPE) and clothing from OSHA?

A The employee is responsible for supplying, cleaning, and disposing of the PPE. B The clothing or other equipment must be strong enough to act as a barrier to infectious materials reaching the employee's street clothing, work clothing, eyes, mouth, or skin. C Disposable gloves may not be reused. D All equipment and clothing must be removed and placed in a designated container before leaving the medical office.

MC 8

Which is not one of the principles of proper body mechanics for stooping?

A Use the large leg muscles to assist in returning to a standing position. B Do not bend from your back. C Stand a minimum of 6 to 8 inches from the object you are moving. D Keep your feet 6 to 8 inches apart to create a base of support.

MC 9

Which of the following is not information included in most incident reports?

A Names of all persons involved B Date and time of the incident C Names of immediate relatives D Names of all witnesses

MC 10

Which of the following is not one of the three divisions of laboratories in the Clinical Laboratories Improvement Amendment of 1988 (CLIA 1988)?

A Easy Testing B Simple Testing C Intermediate-Level Testing (Level II) D Complex Testing (Level III)

MC 11

A ________ could be defined as any issue that could affect the health or safety of an employee either upon immediate exposure or in the long term.

A workplace poison B workplace hazard C workplace chemical D workplace contaminant

MC 12

Portable fire extinguishers should be attached to walls in areas that are no more than ________ feet away from any employee area.

A 5 B 25 C 75 D 125

MC 13

Fire drills should be held at least once a ________ with all employees present.

A day B week C month D year

MC 14

As soon as a fire is discovered, the most important action is to see that ________.

A the fire department is directed to the fire's location B fire extinguishers are being used C the fire does not spread D all patients and employees are safely out of danger

MC 15

Each office should have an OSHA ________ who is trained and aware of all the required controls for the use and storage of harmful substances.

A -certified technician B compliance officer C official inspector D registered officer

MC 16

________ applies scientific information and data regarding human body mechanics to the design of objects and overall environments for human use.

A Ergonomics B Economics C Ecology D Body mechanics

MC 17

A(n) ________ report is filled out whenever any accident, injury, or unusual occurrence takes place.

A medical B official C accident D incident

MC 18

The ________ evaluates the quality of health plans in order to help consumers and employers make more informed decisions about their health care.

A National Consumer Board for Quality Health Assurance B National Order for Consumers C National Quality Health Board D National Committee for Quality Assurance

MC 19

________ are biological substances, such as medical waste and virus or bacteria samples, that pose a threat to human beings and are potentially infectious.

A Paramecia B Cilia C Biohazards D Bacilli

MC 20

________ is concerned with any workplace hazard that may impact the safety of an employee.

A OAHS B OSHA C OASH D AHSO

MC 21

________ is the coordination of body alignment, balance, and movement.

A Body mechanics B Chiropractic C Ergonomic motion D Posture

MC 22

The ultimate goal of a formal ________ is to improve the quality of care so that there is no difference between what should be done and what is actually being done.

A quality control system B training program C quality assurance program D quality training assurance system

MC 23

Which of the following would not be an issue reviewed by a quality assurance committee in a physician's office?

A Disallowed insurance claims B Errors in dispensing medications C Net patient profitability D Errors in labeling of laboratory specimens

MC 24

The basic components of a quality assurance program include all of the following, except ________.

A establishing a quality assurance committee B reviewing all clinical and administrative services and procedures C limiting the number of issues D establishing a base rate of pay for new hires

MC 25

Which of the following is not one of the principles of proper body mechanics when lifting a heavy object?

A Rest frequently. B Lift firmly and smoothly. C Grasp the load by using the large leg muscles. D Keep the object close to the body.

MC 26

Which of the following is not one of the principles of proper body mechanics when pulling or pushing a load?

A Keep feet together. B Keep the back straight. C Keep close to the object you are moving. D Keep feet apart.

MC 27

Which of the following does not fall under the guidelines for housekeeping procedures from OSHA?

A Never pick up broken glass with your hands. B Replace sharps containers when they are completely full. C Properly bag contaminated clothing and laundry in leak-proof labeled bags. D Perform hand hygiene both before and after using gloves.

MC 28

Which of the following is the medical assistant's role in quality assurance?

A Bring patient complaints to the attention of the physician. B Check the lab test performed in the office. C Perform telephone follow-up regarding a patient's condition and progress. D All of the above

MC 29

To prepare for a situation in which infectious material has been spilled, a simple kit can be assembled with all of the following, except ________.

A plain clay kitty litter B plain dry dog food C a small dustpan D a biohazard bag

MC 30

An exposure control plan must include all of the following, except ________.

A pre-exposure B exposure determination C method of compliance D post-exposure

MC 31

OSHA requires that each medical office have a written Exposure Control Plan to assist in minimizing employee exposure to infectious materials. This plan must be reviewed by all office staff and updated ________.

A weekly B monthly C every year D every two years

MC 32

Being prepared for a fire emergency would include all of the following, except ________.

A prominently displaying telephone numbers of fire and police departments B properly maintaining fire extinguishers that have been used C exits and stairways that are clearly marked and free of debris D opening windows on the east side of the building if a fire breaks out

MC 33

As a general safety measure, it is recommended that shoes should ________.

A have high heels B have ties or buckles C have plastic soles D cover the entire foot

MC 34

Which of the following statements about controlled substances is not true?

A They must be stored in a locked cabinet. B Any losses must be reported to OSHA immediately. C Any losses must be reported to the DEA immediately. D The local police should be notified.

MC 35

Which statement is incorrect?

A Electrical shock is not a hazard in the medical office. B Extension cords should never be used in a medical office. C A surge protector must never be plugged into another surge protector. D Surge protectors should be used for all electronic equipment.

MC 36

Ergonomic workplace guidelines include all of the following, except ________.

A keeping computer monitors above eye level B providing chairs with lumbar support C limiting repetitive motions D using wrist rests and mouse rests

MC 37

The ________ has very specific regulations regarding chemical hazards.

A Drug Enforcement Administration B Federal Drug Administration C Centers for Disease Control D Occupational Safety and Health Administration

MC 38

Which type of medical waste includes blood and blood products?

A Solid B Chemical C Radioactive D Infectious

MC 39

Which type of waste includes germicides, cleaning solvents, and pharmaceuticals?

A Solid B Chemical C Radioactive D Infectious

MC 40

Which type of waste is generated in many areas of medicine, including patient rooms and surgery suites?

A Solid B Chemical C Radioactive D Infectious

MC 41

________ must follow the OSHA regulations for handling contaminated materials.

A Laboratory technicians B Patients C Administrators D Medical offices

MC 42

Which statement regarding incident reports is not true?

A Reports must be completed immediately. B Only black ink should be used in reports. C The incident should be described as simply as possible, stating facts. D Completed reports should include subjective comments.

MC 43

According to ________, all blood and body fluids should be treated as if they were contaminated with any bloodborne pathogen.

A the Department of Labor B the office rules C standard precautions D occupational exposure experts

MC 44

Cat litter can be used as a ________ agent to allow sweep-up of infectious material without spreading it.

A wetting B drying C cleaning D disinfecting

MC 45

Which of the following is not true?

A PPE should be worn when responding to a spill. B All infectious material should be removed from a damaged bag. C All surfaces must be decontaminated. D Broken glass should never be picked up.

MC 46

Before biohazardous waste is placed in a designated landfill, it is ________ by a licensed waste disposal service.

A autoclaved B incinerated C sanitized D autoclaved or incinerated

MC 47

Puncture-proof, sealable, biohazard sharps containers are used for all of the following, except ________.

A needles B plastic probes C razors D glass pipettes

MC 48

A medical assistant would not complete an incident report for which of the following incidents?

A A patient falls on a wet floor. B A patient has an allergic reaction to a prescribed medication. C An employee's purse is missing. D A prescription pad is missing.

MC 49

Lighting in medical offices should always be ________.

A fluorescent B as bright as possible C appropriate for the task D incandescent

MC 50

Which incident should be reported to the police?

A A prescription pad is discovered missing. B A patient slips and falls on the wet floor. C A patient overhears a confidential discussion about another patient. D A medical assistant receives a needle stick.

MC 51

Basing a patient's treatment on skillful use of technology and the health professional's use of accepted principles of medical science is one of the American Medical Association's Eight Essentials of ________.

A Universal Precaution B Quality Care C Ergonomics D Safety Assurance

MC 52

Contaminated surfaces should be cleaned with a(n) ________.

A ammonia solution B 1:10 bleach/water solution C solution of plain soap D 10:1 bleach/water solution

MC 53

When using gloves, when should a medical assistant perform hand hygiene?

A Before using gloves B After using gloves C Both before and after using gloves D Hand hygiene isn't necessary when using gloves.

MC 54

When should a medical assistant wear a face shield?

A Routinely as a part of PPE B Whenever possible spray with infectious materials is anticipated C If gross contamination of clothing during a procedure is expected D If contact with an open wound is expected

MC 55

How much hazardous medical waste do hospitals, medical offices, and other health care facilities generate annually?

A Several million tons B One million tons C Three thousand tons D One billion tons

MC 56

Which type of medical waste is not always hazardous?

A Solid B Chemical C Radioactive D Infectious

MC 57

All of the following are examples of ways to minimize electrical hazards, except ________.

A using a ground fault circuit interrupter in wet areas B using extension cords whenever possible C using surge protectors for all electronic equipment D checking electrical cords for cracks or other problems

MC 58

Which is not an example of a general safety measure?

A Report all unsafe conditions immediately. B Mount file cabinets against a wall. C Use handrails when on stairways. D Keep floors clear and highly polished.

MC 59

________ signs positively promote safety but do not indicate danger, for example, a first aid kit.

A Red B Blue C Yellow D Green

MC 60

Signs in the shape of a ________ provide prohibitions and instructions.

A triangle B circle C square D rectangle

MC 61

Triangular signs are ________.

A prohibitions B informational C warnings D emergencies

MC 62

Iodine 123 is an example of ________ waste.

A chemical B radioactive C biological D solid

MC 63

________ are considered biological waste.

A Paper towels B Lab cultures C Solvents D All of the above

MC 64

An evacuation plan should include ________.

A specific procedures for high-rise buildings B a clear chain of command regarding who will order an evacuation C specific procedures including routes and exits D all of the above

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Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 4-I · Medical Terminology — Word Parts (Part I) ▶ Expand

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Homework · Session 2

Summary Questions · Chapters 1–17

Office & Clinical Management — Chapters 1–17

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Section 1: Professional Standards

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Homework · Session 2

Summary Questions · Chapter 31

Infection Control — Chapter 31

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Section 1: Microbiology & Cycle of Infection

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Answer Key · Chapters 1–17

Office & Clinical Management — Teacher Edition

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Chapters 1–17 · Office & Clinical Management

203 questions · 12 sections

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Section 1: Professional Standards & Certification 7 questions

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Section 2: Office Operations & Scheduling 14 questions

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Section 4: Patient Communication & Rights 38 questions

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Section 5: Patient Rights & Legal Concepts 26 questions

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Section 7: Billing, Insurance & Coding 25 questions

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Section 8: CPT Code Categories 19 questions

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Section 9: Clinical Procedures & Patient Care 20 questions

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Section 10: Safety, OSHA & Infection Control 13 questions

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Section 11: Vital Signs 6 questions

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Answer Key · Chapter 31

Infection Control — Teacher Edition

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Chapter 31 · Infection Control

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Test · Session 2

Ch 31 Test · Infection Control

22 True/False · 55 Multiple Choice

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Chapter 18 · Body Structure & Function

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Student Worksheet · Session 5 · Ch. 32

Chapter 32 Worksheet · Vital Signs

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Answer Key · Session 5 · Ch. 32

Chapter 32 Answer Key · Vital Signs

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Student Worksheet · Session 6 · Ch. 51/52

Ch. 51/52 Worksheet · Pharmacology & Administering Medications

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Ch. 51/52 Answer Key · Pharmacology & Administering Medications

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Test · Session 6 · Ch. 51 — Pharmacology

Ch. 51 — Pharmacology — Student Worksheet

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Section 1 — True / False (19 questions)

1

The vast majority of drugs used in medicine today are minerals, created in a laboratory by artificial means.

True False

2

Brand name drugs are typically priced lower than drugs with trade names, and generally are bioequivalent.

True False

3

Generic drugs are just as closely monitored as the brand name drugs, so their effectiveness will always be equivalent to the brand name drugs.

True False

4

Classification of drugs is done on the basis of color and size.

True False

11

All physicians are required to register with the DEA in order to prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances.

True False

12

The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938 stipulates the actual control of drugs. This law was enacted to ensure the safety of food, drugs, and cosmetics that are sold within U.S. borders.

True False

13

The Controlled Substances Act of 1970 regulates the manufacture and distribution of drugs that are capable of causing dependencies.

True False

14

The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the specific department within the Federal Department of Health and Human Services responsible for ensuring that human drugs are safe and effective and that these products are honestly, accurately, and informatively represented to the public.

True False

15

Only physicians and nurses are permitted to sign prescriptions.

True False

31

The pink section in the Physicians' Desk Reference (PDR) is the manufacturer's index with company names, addresses, phone numbers, emergency contacts, and lists of products.

True False

32

The United States Pharmacopeia—National Formulary (USP—NF) lists all medicines, dosage forms, drug substances, and dietary supplements authorized for use in the United States.

True False

33

It is important that the medical assistant have all the available medications memorized to ensure that the patients receive the correct drugs.

True False

34

The drug resource most commonly available is the Physicians' Desk Reference.

True False

39

More errors are found in e-prescriptions when compared with handwritten prescriptions.

True False

40

The abbreviation U for unit is on The Joint Commission "Do Not Use" List.

True False

52

The study of drug movement throughout the body is pharmacokinetics.

True False

53

Analgesics relieve pain without the loss of consciousness.

True False

62

Very few drugs are considered safe for use during pregnancy.

True False

63

Abdominal cramping can be an indication of intolerance to a medication.

True False

Section 2 — Multiple Choice (69 questions)

Drug Sources, Types & Classification

5

Which is one of the sources of drugs?

APlantsBAnimalsCSyntheticsDAll of the above

6

Which term is not related to describing drugs?

AGeneticBGenericCBrandDChemical

7

________ is the other term used for nonprescription drugs.

AUnder-the-counterBOver-the-counterCPrescriptionDAddiction

8

________ are drugs that help to control cholesterol and lipid levels.

AStatinsBStimulantsCDiureticsDSedatives

9

The classification of drugs is based on their ________.

Arelative effectivenessBlevel of potential habituationCavailabilityDaction in the body

10

Drugs in this class destroy or prohibit the growth of microorganisms.

AAntibioticsBAdrenergicsCAnestheticsDAnalgesics

Regulatory Framework & Controlled Substances

16

Physicians are required to register with the DEA in order to prescribe, dispense, or administer controlled substances. A special form, DEA 224, must be completed and submitted to the DEA. Renewal is required every ________ year(s), using Form 224a.

AoneBtwoCthreeDfour

17

The schedule identification number for any controlled substance is written as a Roman numeral inside a capital letter ________.

AABBCCDD

18

Which is NOT one of the commonly controlled substances?

AChloral hydrateBButabarbitalCDiazepamDNicotine

19

Which schedule level for controlled substances has a description of a moderate-to-low potential for addiction and abuse?

AIBIICIIIDIV

20

Which is NOT considered necessary and important enough to keep secure in the medical office?

ASyringesBNeedlesCPrescription padsDAlcohol wipes

21

The Controlled Substances Act (CSA) was enacted in ________.

A2015B1945C1970D1920

22

All of the following commonly used drugs would be typed as an illegal drug, EXCEPT ________.

AheroinBmethamphetamineCopiumDcocaine

23

Eventually, all patient health records will be ________.

AtranscribedBphoned inCelectronicDdictated

24

In August of 2013, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) ruled that ________ medical assistants are allowed to enter orders into the electronic health record (EHR).

AlicensedBfull-timeCeducatedDcredentialed

25

The federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA) has set forth guidelines for controlled substances and divided them into ________ sections, or schedules, according to their potentially addictive level of abuse.

AthreeBfiveCsevenDnine

26

Codeine is an example of a schedule ________ drug.

AIBIICIIIDIV

27

Heroin is an example of a Schedule ________ drug.

AIBIICIIIDIV

28

Diazepam is an example of a Schedule ________ drug.

AIBIICIIIDIV

29

Despite their low potential for addiction and abuse, inventory records must be maintained on Schedule ________ drugs.

AIIBIIICIVDV

30

Drug dependency is using a drug ________.

AillegallyBimproperlyCfor psychological supportDto treat a chronic condition

Drug References & the PDR

35

________ are specially trained and licensed professionals who specialize in the preparation and dispensation of drugs.

APharmacistsBPhysiciansCMedical assistantsDPharmacy assistants

36

The PDR is reprinted ________ and is a relatively easy-to-read reference published by a private company and purchased by medical offices and hospitals.

AweeklyBmonthlyCquarterlyDannually

37

The ________ section of the PDR lists drugs grouped by therapeutic classes.

AgrayBpinkCwhiteDblue

38

The ________ section in the PDR is an alphabetical listing of generic and brand drug names.

AgrayBwhiteCblueDpink

Prescriptions & Prescription Writing

41

On the patient's prescription what cannot be found?

ANameBAddressCGenderDAge

42

Signa (Sig.) means ________.

AitemBtwoClabelDthree

43

The ________ name of a drug, also known as the proprietary name, is typically noted in uppercase letters and is the name given by the specific manufacturer.

AbiologicalBchemicalCgenericDbrand

44

On a prescription, DAW means to ________.

Adestroy all wasteBdispose of all waysCdispense as writtenDdeliver all waste

45

A single prescription is usually written so that it may be refilled no more than ________ times.

AtwoBfourCsixDeight

46

The name of a medication, its actual ingredients, and its dosage are included in the ________ of a prescription.

AinscriptionBsubscriptionCsignaDsuperscription

47

The symbol Rx from the Latin term recipe, meaning ________, is usually preprinted on the prescription form.

Atake nowBtake thouCrequired doseDmixed batches done

48

Sometimes, prn is written on a prescription. It means ________.

Apatient registration neededBprescription can be refilled as neededCphysician's report is necessaryDpatient's registered nurse

49

All of the following would be part of a prescription, EXCEPT the ________.

ASocial Security NumberBnameCDEA numberDaddress

50

The abbreviation for at once is ________.

AtabBaoCprnDstat

51

The abbreviation ________ means twice a day.

Aalt diebBbidCqodDtid

Pharmacokinetics & Drug Actions

54

Metabolism is also called ________.

AbioavailabilityBpharmacokineticsCbiotransformationDenzyme induction

55

The final stage of pharmacokinetics is ________.

AdigestionBabsorptionCexcretionDnone of the above

56

In excessive amounts, some drugs can become ________, or harmful.

AefficaciousBcontraindicatedCcontrolled substancesDtoxic

57

Which drug classification relieves pain without loss of consciousness and may be either narcotic or nonnarcotic?

AAnalgesicBAnticoagulantCAntidepressantDAntidiabetic

58

Which is a form of hormone?

ATetracyclineBAspirinCEstraceDTylenol

59

Drug ________, also known as drug sensitivity, is a lower threshold to the normal pharmacologic action of a drug.

AtoleranceBintoleranceChabituationDdependence

60

Which is a factor that contributes to a patient's reaction to a medication?

AAgeBWeightCMethod of administrationDAll of the above

61

________ is a decrease in the effectiveness of a drug as the body gets used to having the drug in the system.

ADependenceBToleranceCHabituationDIntolerance

Adverse Reactions, Interactions & Special Populations

64

________ should NOT be taken with Coumadin (an anticlotting medication) because of the potential for uncontrolled bleeding.

AFoodBVitaminsCAspirinDMinerals

65

The life-threatening adverse reaction to a food, a drug, or an insect bite is ________.

Aanaphylactic shockBdrug toleranceChabituationDidiosyncratic

66

Before prescribing a drug for any female, the date of her last ________ should be ascertained to ensure that she is not pregnant.

AmarriageBpregnancyCmenstrual cycleDphysical

67

All of the following would be considered one of the several medications that are contraindicated in nursing mothers, EXCEPT ________.

AtetracyclinesBvitaminsCchloramphenicolDsulfonamides

68

According to FDA pregnancy classifications, for drugs in category ________, the risk of use outweighs the potential benefits.

ABBCCNDX

69

Elderly patients may be exposed to ________, which refers to taking five or more medications simultaneously.

AhyperpharmaBpolypharmacyCmaximedDhypertoxicity

70

Usually, if a medication is administered in the office, the patient is asked to wait at least ________ before leaving the office in case of any adverse reaction.

A10 minutesB30 minutesC1 hourD2 hours

71

An FDA pregnancy classification of ________ would mean that controlled studies showed no demonstrated risk to the fetus in any trimester.

AABBCDDX

72

Which of the following is NOT one of the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?

ARespiratory distressBEdema (swelling) in the mouth and throatCConvulsionsDIncreased level of consciousness

73

Geriatric and pediatric patients, in particular, are susceptible to the effects of medications and will usually require ________ doses.

AvaryingBhigherCthe sameDlower

74

Individuals with ________ should NOT take aspirin or ibuprofen because of the increased risk of bleeding.

Aheart diseaseBheadachesCcancerDstomach ulcers

Additional Practice Questions

75

In which of the following sources are the side effects of bupropion listed?

AICD-10-CM coding manualBUnited States PharmacopeiaCElectronic health recordDPhysicians' Desk Reference

76

A patient reports having diarrhea while taking an antibiotic. The medical assistant should document the patient report as which of the following?

APoisoningBAdverse eventCToxic effectDAllergic reaction

77

Which of the following signifies a prescription medication is to be taken as needed?

AAs neededBPRNCTIDDDaily

78

During inventory, a medical assistant notices medications are missing from the cabinet. To which of the following parties should the assistant report this information?

APharmaceutical representativeBOffice managerCFood and Drug AdministrationDThe Joint Commission

79

Which of the following is the appropriate way to dispose of expired controlled substances?

ATake the medication to a community disposal site.BThrow the medication in a regular trash container.CPlace tablets in a brown paper bag for disposal.DHave two authorized employees sign a waste log.

80

Liver dysfunction primarily affects which of the following pharmacokinetic processes?

AMetabolismBExcretionCAbsorptionDDistribution

81

Which of the following types of medication is used to treat nausea and vomiting?

AAnticoagulantBAntitussiveCAntiemeticDAnticholinergic

82

Which of the following medications should a medical assistant recognize as potentially causing prolonged bleeding time?

ANitroglycerinBLisinoprilCWarfarinDEpinephrine

83

Which of the following schedules of controlled substances is classified as having no accepted medical use?

AIVBVCIDIII

84

A patient visiting an urgent care states they have no medication left from the previous provider they saw 1 year ago. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

AVerify the patient's identity.BCall in refills to the patient's pharmacy.CMake an appointment for the following week.DGive the patient pharmaceutical samples.

85

Which of the following organizations can recall medication if it is deemed unsafe for use?

AFDABDEACCDCDAMA

86

A medical assistant witnesses a patient taking controlled substances from the medication closet. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

ANotify the local health department.BContact the facility's board of directors.CCall the Drug Enforcement Agency.DFollow the chain of command of the facility.

87

A patient calls requesting a prescription refill for a Schedule II medication. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take?

AOffer the patient an appointment within the next 2 weeks.BAsk the provider to send the prescription electronically.CCheck the patient's record and fax over the prescription refill.DCall the pharmacy and verbally approve the refill.

88

Which of the following is an electronic method to send prescription refills to a pharmacy?

AComputerized charge entryBE-prescribingCComputerized provider order entryDElectronic data interchange

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Test HW Test · Ch 52 · Administering Medication ▶ Expand

How to Complete This Test

Complete the homework test for Chapter 52 — Administering Medications. 95 questions covering routes of administration, injection techniques, vaccines, and IV therapy.

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Test · Session 6 · Ch. 52 — Administering Medications

Ch. 52 — Administering Medications — Student Worksheet

95 Questions

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Section 1 — True / False (22 questions)

1

Parenteral medications are administered inside the gastrointestinal tract, usually by injection.

True False

6

Small, sealed metal canisters are called vials and contain only a single dose of medication.

True False

7

The gauge of the needle is determined by the viscosity of the medication.

True False

8

The shaft is the actual length of the hollow needle.

True False

17

There are six rights to make sure of each time you administer a medication.

True False

18

The medical assistant and the physician are liable for all medications that are administered to the patient.

True False

23

A subcutaneous injection is given in the back of the arms, the abdomen, or thighs.

True False

24

The intradermal injection, in which a minute amount of material is injected within the top layer of skin to determine a patient's sensitivity to it, is commonly used for allergy testing.

True False

25

The tuberculin skin test is administered intradermally.

True False

26

An insulin injection is done subcutaneously, typically in the arm, abdomen, or thigh.

True False

44

Hepatitis B is caused by the hepatitis B virus (HBV) and is transmitted by contaminated serum in blood transfusions or through the use of contaminated needles or instruments.

True False

45

It is recommended that all children receive the polio vaccine by injection.

True False

46

The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends that children aged 6 months up to 19 years receive the influenza vaccine.

True False

47

There are two types of polio vaccines: inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) and live oral polio vaccine (OPV).

True False

48

The pneumococcal vaccine was NOT, until very recently, licensed for children under the age of 2.

True False

49

The polio vaccine has been available since 1955, which has resulted in the disappearance of the disease in the United States.

True False

50

Once a child is given the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, he or she is protected from those diseases for life.

True False

69

Inhaled medication delivered by nebulizer treatment must be administered in a physician's office.

True False

70

Chemotherapy medications are NOT administered using IV therapy.

True False

76

Concerns related to a needlestick injury include exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

True False

77

Medical offices must have a puncture-proof, rigid, locked container labeled with an international biohazard sticker for the disposal of sharps.

True False

78

When smaller biohazard sharps containers are two-thirds to three-quarters full, they should be closed and left in the patient examination room.

True False

Section 2 — Multiple Choice (73 questions)

Routes of Administration & Dosage Forms

2

Which term is not used with respect to administering the medications orally?

ALiquidBTransdermalCBuccalDSublingual

3

Eyedrops are applied ________.

AorallyBtopicallyCsublinguallyDparenterally

4

Which medications are held under the tongue, where they diffuse through the tissues?

AsublingualBbuccalCoralDnone of the above

5

The ________ vaccine is administered subcutaneously.

AMMRBHAVCHPVDHib

Equipment: Syringes, Needles & Containers

9

For ________ the smallest gauge needles are used.

Aintravenous linesBintramuscular injectionsCsubcutaneous injectionsDintradermal injections

10

Larger syringes are calibrated in 2, 3, 5, 10-mL, and larger sizes, up to 60 mL. The most commonly used size is the ________ syringe, because it is the most accurate with small doses of medication.

A2-mLB3-mLC5-mLD10-mL

11

The length of needle required for medication administration varies from 3/8 inch to ________ inches.

A2B3C4D5

12

The ________ connects the needle to the syringe.

AlumenBshaftChubDflange

13

The smaller the bore, or lumen, of the hollow syringe needle, the ________ the gauge number.

AlowerBsmallerClongerDhigher

14

________ are small, sealed glass bottles containing a single dose of medication.

ACartridgesBGaugesCVialsDAmpules

15

The ________ is the part of the syringe which, when pressed, expels medication from the syringe.

AbarrelBflangeCplungerDlumen

16

The ________ holds the liquid in the syringe.

AhubBshaftCbarrelDflange

Medication Safety & the Six Rights

19

The medical assistant's scope of practice includes administration of medication by all of these routes, EXCEPT ________.

AsubcutaneouslyBintramuscularlyCintravenouslyDintradermally

20

Medication must be checked ________ times before administration.

AtwoBthreeCfourDfive

21

All needles and syringes should be placed in a ________, needle down, as soon as they are used.

AcoverBSafety-LockCred sharps containerDsheath

22

To prevent needlesticks, ________ needles and syringes should be used.

AsafetyBunsheathedCrecappedDdisinfected used

Injection Techniques & Sites

27

Intramuscular (IM) injections are given in one of four sites. These sites include all of the following muscles, EXCEPT the ________.

AdeltoidBsubscapularCvastus lateralisDdorsogluteal

29

During a tuberculin skin test, the skin where the test is done should be cleansed with ________ and allowed to dry.

Acool waterBwarm waterCan alcohol wipeDdisinfectant

30

The safest and preferred site for intramuscular injections on a toddler is the ________ muscle.

Avastus lateralisBdeltoidCdorsoglutealDventrogluteal

31

The degree of angle at which intramuscular injections are given is ________

A30B45C90D120

32

The subcutaneous injection is given just under the skin in the fat (adipose) tissue. This method is used for small doses of nonirritating medications for all of the following, EXCEPT ________.

AimmunizationsBantibioticsCinsulinDheparin

33

The intradermal injection is given at a ________-degree angle to the skin surface.

A5 to 10B10 to 15C15 to 20D20 to 25

34

Patients receiving allergy injections should remain in the office after their injection, per the office protocol, usually ________ minutes, to ensure that the patient is not having any type of allergic reaction.

A2 to 3B5 to 10C10 to 20D20 to 30

35

Up to ________ mL can be safely injected into a large adult's deltoid muscle.

A1B1.5C2D2.5

36

Up to ________ mL can be safely injected into a large adult's ventrogluteal muscle.

A1B1.5C2D2.5

37

Up to ________ mL can be safely injected into a large adult's vastus lateralis muscle.

A2B3C4D5

38

Up to ________ mL can be safely injected into a dorsogluteal muscle.

A2B3C4D5

39

The ________ muscle is on the outer portion of the upper thigh and is part of the quadriceps.

AdeltoidBdorsoglutealCvastus lateralisDventrogluteal

40

Which is NOT a common site for intradermal injections?

Aanterior forearmBupper chestCupper backDabdomen

41

The purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis is administered by ________.

Asubcutaneous injectionBinhalationCintradermal injectionDintramuscular injection

42

When administering a Z-track injection, it is critically important to ________.

Ainsert the needle and then pull the skinBwithdraw the needle after releasing the skinCwithdraw the needle before releasing the skinDinject the medication and then pull the skin

43

Allergy tests are administered by ________.

AinhalationBintradermal injectionCsubcutaneous injectionDintramuscular injection

71

The ________ is the site where the nebulizer dispenses the medication.

Amucous membranesBrespiratory tractCskinDmuscles

Vaccines & Immunizations

51

The ________ vaccine guards against chickenpox.

ARV1BIPVC2vHPVDvaricella

52

The recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receive the "first dose" of the ________ vaccine at birth.

ADTaPBMMRCHepBDPCV13

53

A(n) ________ recommended childhood and adolescent immunization schedule is issued by the American Academy of Pediatrics, the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the CDC, and the American Academy of Family Physicians.

AmonthlyBquarterlyCannualDbiannual

54

In the first six months of life, it is recommended that infants be vaccinated for all of these, EXCEPT ________.

ArotavirusBhuman papillomavirusCdiphtheriaDacellular pertussis

55

________ dose(s) of hepatitis B vaccine should be administered to a child.

AOneBTwoCThreeDFour

56

The fifth dose of diphtheria vaccine is given to children between the ages of ________ years.

A2 and 4B4 and 6C6 and 8D8 and 10

57

The MMR vaccine to protect children from developing measles, mumps, and rubella is given in ________ dose(s).

AoneBtwoCthreeDfour

58

The ________ vaccine is indicated only for adults.

AinfluenzaBshinglesCpneumococcalDhepatitis A

59

When children receive a vaccine for tetanus, it is usually injected in combination with vaccines for ________ and diphtheria.

AmeaslesBpertussisCrubellaDmumps

60

The Haemophilus influenzae type b disease vaccine protects individuals from Hib disease, an infection that can cause ________.

AmeaslesBinfluenzaCmeningitisDhepatitis

61

The ________ vaccine guards against whooping cough.

AMMRBDTaPCHibDRV

62

The MMR vaccine prevents ________, a disease that can result in birth defects, brain damage, deafness, or death.

AdiphtheriaBchickenpoxCmeaslesDscarlet fever

63

Because of the high incidence of Hepatitis A, it is recommended that children be vaccinated with Hepatitis A vaccine in all of these states, EXCEPT ________.

AAlaskaBArizonaCCaliforniaDOregon

64

The MMR vaccine prevents mumps, which can result in all of the following, EXCEPT ________.

AmeningitisBliver damageCdeafnessDencephalitis

65

The availability of the Hib vaccine has caused incidents of Hib to ________ since 1985.

Adramatically increaseBdramatically decreaseCslightly increaseDslightly decrease

66

________ DTaP shots are required to fully protect a child. The last booster is given to children between the ages of 4 and 6.

AThreeBFiveCSevenDNine

67

Only infants whose mothers have negative hepatitis B surface antigens (HBsAg) may be given the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine by age ________ instead of soon after birth.

Afour weeksBsix weeksCtwo monthsDthree months

68

Human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccine can be given to females as young as 9 through ________ years of age.

A14B20C26D32

IV Therapy, Nebulizers & Special Procedures

72

Which of the following statements about outpatient IV therapy is FALSE?

AIt prevents hospital admissions.BIt is less cost effective for patients without insurance.CIt allows patients to spend more time with family.DIt enables earlier discharge for patients.

73

IV therapy is indicated for all of the following, EXCEPT ________.

Arheumatoid arthritis medicationsBreplacing lost fluidsCadministering hemoglobinDadministering medications into the respiratory tract

74

Bolus, IV push, and scheduled intermittent administration are all examples of ________ dosage.

AanalgesicBunitCportDsublingual

75

The most common side effect of intravenous therapy is ________.

AphlebitisBinfiltrationCinflammation of the veinDinfection at the site of the needle

Additional Practice Questions

79

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take after experiencing an accidental needlestick?

AReview Safety Data Sheets.BDocument the incident in the patient's chart.CFollow the health care facility's exposure control plan.DWash hands and remain quiet about the incident.

80

Which of the following items is discarded in a sharps container?

AGauze pad saturated with bloodBSpecimen cup with urineCBlade holderDLancet

81

A medical assistant has completed a nebulizer treatment on a patient. Which of the following information should the assistant include in the patient's record?

AHeightBPulseCBody mass indexDWeight

82

Which of the following areas should a medical assistant use for an injection using the Z-track technique?

AGreater trochanter of femurBRectus femorisCVentroglutealDAbdomen

83

Which of the following is a form of medication that can be inserted into the vagina?

AEnemaBEnteric-coated tabletCSuppositoryDLozenge

84

A medical assistant is reinforcing teaching with a patient about medication administration in the ear. Which of the following information should the assistant include?

AThe medication is usually administered in ointment form.BThe medication will take 5 to 10 min to be absorbed into the bloodstream.CThe medication should be warmed in the hands prior to administration.DThe medication might result in adverse systemic side effects.

85

Which of the following equipment is used to administer medication via nebulizer for a pediatric patient?

ANasal cannulaBPeak flow meterCSpirometerDFace mask

86

Which of the following routes of administration includes placing medication between the cheek and the gums to dissolve and absorb quickly?

AOralBSubcutaneousCSublingualDBuccal

87

Which of the following describes chain of custody when performing a drug screening?

AA policy that discourages illicit drug usage in the workplaceBA process to obtain consent for medical recordsCA system that protects the reliability and validity of test resultsDA legal term for prosecuting people who use illicit drugs

88

Which of the following methods should a medical assistant use to draw up medication from a vial into a syringe?

AVigorously shake vial for 2 to 3 min.BWarm the medication in hands before administration.CUse a 16-gauge needle to draw up the liquid.DInject an equal volume of air into the vial before drawing up.

89

A provider orders a syringe to assist a patient with measuring a liquid dosage of 1 tsp at home. Which of the following measurements on the syringe should the medical assistant mark to indicate 1 tsp?

A1 mLB7 mLC3 mLD5 mL

90

Which of the following forms of medication may be absorbed under the tongue?

APowderBFilm stripCCarbon tabletDCapsule

91

Which of the following medication routes does a medical assistant administer topically?

ATransdermalBPercutaneousCIntramuscularDSubcutaneous

92

Which of the following actions should a medical assistant take after obtaining a urine drug screen for a patient following a work-related accident?

AReturn the sample to the provider's office within 36 hr.BConfirm the patient's identity.CCheck the urine specimen temperature within 15 min.DSeal the lid in the presence of the patient.

93

A medical assistant is administering a subcutaneous injection into a patient's abdomen. Which of the following distances should the assistant keep away from the umbilicus?

A1 1/2 inchesB1/2 inchC1 inchD2 inches

94

Which of the following temperature ranges is used to store live-attenuated vaccines?

A8.3° to 13.9° C (47° to 57° F)B-10.6° to -5° C (13° to 23° F)C-4.4° to 1.1° C (24° to 34° F)D2.2° to 7.8° C (36° to 46° F)

95

A medical assistant is performing intradermal allergy testing on a patient. At which of the following distances should the assistant space the allergen sites?

A6.4 to 7.6 cm (2.5 to 3 in)B8.9 to 10.2 cm (3.5 to 4 in)C0.6 to 1.9 cm (0.25 to 0.75 in)D3.8 to 5.1 cm (1.5 to 2 in)

96

At which of the following times should a medical assistant provide a patient with a Vaccine Information Statement?

AImmediately after administering a vaccineBBefore administering a vaccineCDuring checkout processDUpon patient request

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Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 51 · Pharmacology ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 52 · Administering Medication ▶ Expand

Slides Presentations ▶ Expand

Review Chapter Questions Review — Ch 33 & 34 ▶ Expand

Test HW Test · Ch 33 & Ch 34 · Physical Exam & Medical Specialties ▶ Expand

Slides Presentations ▶ Expand

Review Chapter Questions Review — Ch 42 & 43 ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 24 · The Cardiovascular System ▶ Expand

Slides Presentations ▶ Expand

Review Chapter Questions Review — Ch 42 & 43 ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 43 · Hematology ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 42 · Phlebotomy & Blood Collection ▶ Expand

Slides Presentations ▶ Expand

Lab Phlebotomy Performance Lab ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 23 · Special Senses ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 22 · The Nervous System ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 25 · The Immune System ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 27 · The Digestive System ▶ Expand

Flashcards Vocabulary Flashcards — Ch 28 · The Urinary System ▶ Expand